A thought crossed my mind,
For Christians out there who believe that JC was claiming to be G-d when he said the words: 
Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was," I am".
(πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι "ἐγὼ εἰμί") ~John 8:58

You would probably be surprised to know that the Hebrew Bible does not say that "I AM" is a title or name for G-d.
כֹּה תֹאמַר לִבְנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל, אֶהְיֶה, שְׁלָחַנִי אֲלֵיכֶם.
"Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel: "I WILL BE" (אֶהְיֶה) hath sent me unto you."
Now the Septuagint does state I AM ἐγώ εἰμι in Exodus 3:14 but why would JC quote the Septuagint (not that JC spoke greek) instead of the hebrew form.
(note the Septuagint we have today and even during the writing of the Gospels was not the original one translated by the 70 which is why many errors are found within it).

I'm of the belief that IF JC did exist he was just a regular Torah observant Jew who was frustrated with the hypocrisy espoused by the leaders of his time.
And every reference made that mentions him saying anything outside of the character of a religious Jew (ie claiming divinity) was inserted by the Holy Roman empire.